Aramaic NT

The New Testament was originally written in Aramaic. The Greek New Testament is a translation of the Aramaic New Testament. If Jesus was preaching in Aramaic, would it make more sense to write down what he said in Greek or Aramaic? If Jesus' words were written down in Greek, then that would only be a translation of everything he said. Readers would lose information. Also, Jesus' disciples spoke Aramaic; they didn't know enough Greek to write down whole scrolls of teaching in Greek. Josephus, a Jewish historian of the time, said that he only knew two or three people among the Jews that knew Greek; he was one of them. The Jewish Rabbis also discouraged the Jews from speaking in a heathen language. Josephus said this: “I have also taken a great deal of pains to obtain the learning of the Greeks, and to understand the elements of the Greek language, although I have so accustomed myself to speak our own tongue, that I cannot pronounce Greek with sufficient exactness. For our nation does not encourage those that learn the language of many nations. On this account, as there have been many who have done their endeavors, with great patience, to obtain the Greek learning, there have hardly been two or three who have succeeded herein, who were immediately rewarded for their pains.” (Antiquities XX, X1 2).

The Assyrians imposed the Aramaic language on Israel in the 7^th century B.C. Aramaic was the language spoken at the time of Jesus in Palestine, Syria, Asia Minor, Persia and Egypt (Isa. 19:18). Aramaic was also spoken by the Jews in other places such as Latin Rome (Italy). Remember, the Bible says that the Jews were scattered abroad (James 1:1). Peter writes his first letter from Babylon, which was in Persia (1 Pet. 5:13). The language there was Aramaic. The Aramaic spoken in Syria was called Syriac and the Aramaic spoken in Palestine was called Hebrew, because the Hebrews were speaking it. A proof that the word Hebrew is referring to Aramaic is at John 20:16, which states: “Jesus said to her, Mary. She turned around and said to him in Hebrew, Rabbuli! which means, My teacher.” Rabbuli is not a Hebrew word, but it is an Aramaic word. The Greek NT transliterated this word as Rabbuni. The “l” and the “n” in the Dead Sea Scroll (DSS) script look very similar, and a reader could easily misread them between the two. Remember, back then a scribe would have only had a candle to use while translating in the dark.

The Aramaic Peshitta New Testament was used as the source behind the Greek NT Translation and the Armenian Translation. The Greek NT was used as the source behind the Latin Vulgate and other translations because the Greek language has vowels within its words like Latin and English. If someone can’t pronounce the text, then it is very hard to read and make a translation.

The Greek NT has many Aramaic words within its contents, such as: Abba, raca, Cephas, eli eli lama sabachthani, Hosanna, Maranatha, talitha cumi, rabbi, mammon, etc. Some of those words are pronounced a little different in the Aramaic language, but nevertheless, they are Aramaic words, not Greek words.

The Greek NT is purged of the words “Arameans” and “Aramaic” in the many places that they occur. For example, Romans 1:16 (Lamsa) says this: “For I am not ashamed of the gospel of Christ; for it is the power of God to salvation to every one who believes, whether they are Jews first, or Arameans (Syrians).” In the place of Arameans, the Greek NT has the word Greeks. The Aramaic NT has reference to both Arameans and Greeks in its contents. So it is not about the Aramaic NT being biased. However, the Greek NT has an obvious purging of the words “Arameans” and “Aramaic.”

There are two good reasons why the word Arameans was translated as Greeks.One reason is because both the words Aramean and Greek referred to a non-Jew or gentile (See Gal. 2:14). The Greek NT has the word eth-ne-kos (Gentile) at that verse. Additionally, Dr. Lamsa translated the word Arameans as gentiles there. The second reason would be that the Greeks didn’t like the Arameans; and the translators of the NT knew that a holy book praising Arameans wouldn’t be accepted. In history, it was the Greeks that defeated the Aramaic speaking nations of Media and Persia. Also, in the additional parts of Esther, we see some hostility between the Arameans and Greeks. After King Ahasuerus realizes that Haman’s plot to kill the Jews was evil, he wrote this: “…Haman, son of Hammedatha, a Macedonian (or Greek), certainly not of Persian blood, and very different from us in generosity, was hospitably received by us…But, unequal to this dignity, he strove to deprive us of kingdom and of life; and by weaving intricate webs of deceit, he demanded the destruction of Mordecai, our savior and constant benefactor, and of Esther, our blameless royal consort, together with their whole race.” (Esther E:10,12-13 NAB). The following paragraphs will have proofs that the Aramaic NT is the original, and that the Greek NT is a translation of the Aramaic Peshitta NT.

The Greek NT has the pronunciation of satan as satanas. In Aramaic, satan is pronounced as satana; so satanas is a transliteration of satana. The final “s” is not important because the Greek language adds a final “s” to foreign words; especially names. Previously, before the NT, the Hebrew word satan was translated as “the devil,” when it referred to Lucifer. And at one place in the LXX, the Hebrew word “satan” was transliterated as “satan” (See 1 Kings 11:14). The word satan appears twice at 1 Kings 11:14 in the LXX, but the second satan is not found in the Masoretic text.

“…Do you not remember the five loaves of bread of the five thousand, and how many baskets (Greek singular: ko-phi-nos) you took up? Neither the seven loaves of bread of the four thousand, and how many baskets (Greek singular: spur-i-das) you took up?” (Matt. 16:9-10 Lamsa). The Greek Lexicons are uncertain of the origin of Ko-phi-nos. Ko-phi-nos looks like the Aramaic word Qo-phi-na, which is used at the same place in this verse. Qo-phi-na (large basket) comes from the root word Qo-pha – “to carry.” Also, the Greek word spur-i-das is supposedly from the Greek word spear-o (to sow). However, Spur-i-das looks like it is from the Aramaic word Es-pri-dhin (round baskets), which is used at the same place in this verse. Es-pri-dhin comes from the root Es-pi-ra, which means “Spherical.”

“And if your eye offends you, remove it and cast it away from you; it is better for you to go through life with one eye, rather than to have two eyes and fall into the Gehenna of fire.” (Matt. 18: 9 Lamsa). Gehenna is a Greek transliteration of the Aramaic Ge-han-na. The Hebrew pronunciation of Ge-han-na is Gey Hin-nom (meaning: Valley of Hinnom). Prior to the Greek NT, The Greek OT translated Gey Hin-nom as “Valley of Ennom.” Gehanna (or Greek: Gehenna) is translated as “hell” in the New Testament.

At Matthew 27: 9 (KJV), it says: “Then was fulfilled that which was spoken by Jeremy the prophet, saying, And they took the thirty pieces of silver, the price of him that was valued, whom they of the children of Israel did value;” All three of the major Greek texts (Majority [Byzantine], NU and Textus Receptus) says this verse was written by Jeremiah the prophet. But this is incorrect. This verse comes from Zechariah 11:13. The Aramaic NT says this: “Then what was spoken by the prophet was fulfilled,…” The Aramaic NT doesn’t name the prophet. The Greek translator thought Matthew was quoting Jeremiah, but he was wrong. So the Peshitta NT is correct, while the Greek NT is wrong.

There was a tradition of naming the prophet quoted in the Greek translation of scripture when the original language that the text was written in didn’t name the prophet. Matthew 27:9 is one example. Another example is at Tobit 14:4. The original Aramaic text says this: “..for faithful are the words of the prophet that spoke in the name of the LORD concerning the Syrians and Nineveh..” Notice that the Aramaic text doesn’t name the prophet. There are two main Greek readings for this verse. One Greek reading names the prophet as Nahum, and another names the prophet as Jonah.

“As it is written in (with) Isaiah the prophet, Behold I send my messenger before your face, that he may prepare your way, (Mal. 3:1) The voice that cries in the wilderness: Make ready the way of the Lord and straighten his highways (Isa. 40:3).” (Mark 1:2-3 Lamsa). There are many mistranslations (or misinterpretations) in the Lamsa translation, just like there are many mistranslations in every English Bible. The Aramaic preposition beh most of the time carries the meaning of “with.” Interestingly, the Greek word en at this verse also carries the meaning of “with,” but also means “by.” Because the first part of Mark’s quoting is not in Isaiah’s book, later Greek texts were changed to read “As it is written in the prophets..” “As it is written with Isaiah the prophet” is the correct reading because not only is it in the Aramaic text; it also agrees with the oldest Greek manuscripts. Additionally, the Latin Vulgate says the same thing, but exchanges “with” for “by,” reading: “As it is written by Isaiah the prophet..” Aramaic, like English and other languages, will express a message with words but the whole thought is not contained in those words. The words “Isaiah the prophet” refer to “the writing of Isaiah the prophet.” That verse should read: “As it is written with the writing of Isaiah the prophet..” One example of the Aramaic language using a word that doesn’t contain the complete thought is at the following verse: “And Haman was second in authority from the King…” (Esther 15:2). The Aramaic text literally says that “Haman was second from the King…” The words “in authority” were needed to complete the thought or give the correct meaning to the verse. The words “in rank” could have also been used.

All Mark is doing is combining a sentence from Malachi with a sentence from Isaiah to establish a teaching. If Mark really was trying to say “as it is written by Isaiah the prophet,” then he would have added an extra word to single out that prophet. Mark would have said “As it is written by the hand of Isaiah the prophet,” like Matthew did at Matthew 4:14. The Aramaic text there literally says: “…that was spoken by the hand of Isaiah the prophet, who said.” Dr. Lamsa translated the words “by the hand” as “by” at this verse and at others (See Matt. 3:3, 8:17, 12:17, etc.).

“And they reached the port on the other side of the sea in the country of the Gadarenes.” (Mark 5:1 Lamsa). The word Gadarenes also appears at (Luke 8:26,37). Gadarenes is the Aramaic understanding of the descendants of Hagar (Hagarites). Gadarenes also appears in the Aramaic translation of Psalm 83:6. The Aramaic Language sometimes calls different races by a different name than is understood by Hebrew, Greek or English speakers. Another example is the word “Ishmaelites” which is translated as “Arabians” in the Aramaic Peshitta Old Testament.

Hagarites was translated as Hagarenes (Hagarenoi) in the Greek translation. So Gadarenes is not a Greek understanding of the Hagarites. This verse plus others prove that the Greek New Testament is a translation of the Aramaic Peshitta New Testament.

The priests and Levites asked John the Baptist this question “… Art thou that prophet? And he answered, No.” (John 1:21 KJV). The word that is added in the KJV Bible. The Greek text actually agrees with the NIV translation of that verse; and has the Jews asking John the Baptist: “.. Are you the Prophet? He answered, No.” Some nouns in the Aramaic language like “prophet,” “messiah,” et cetera don’t lose the final “a” sound to show that they are indefinite. Context lets the reader know if these nouns should be indefinite or definite in meaning. In other words, their spelling is the same for both their definite and indefinite meaning. The Greek translator decided to translate the word “prophet” with the definite article as “the prophet.”

The words “the prophet” was seen as a reference to a specific prophet, namely, Jesus the Messiah. But that verse should be rendered: “.. Are you a prophet?..” (Lamsa). Ignorant Christians have made a prophesy out of (Deut. 18:18). I can see how the Greek text got the words “the prophet” from the Aramaic text. When Simon Peter said this: “For Moses said, The Lord shall raise up a prophet like me for you from among your brethren; listen to him in all that he shall say to you. And it shall come to pass that every person who will not listen to that prophet shall be lost from his people.” (Acts 3:22-23 Lamsa). All Peter was saying is that Jesus was a prophet and you all had better listen to him or God will destroy you. This is all in accordance with the office of a prophet at Deuteronomy 18:15,18-19. Peter was not making a prophesy out of those verses in Deuteronomy.

The Greek NT translated the words “Jesus the Messiah (M’shi-kha)” as Jesus Christ in a lot of places; leaving out the definite article. In some places, the Greek text does say “Jesus the Christ.” However, the words Jesus Christ sound like a person’s first and last name. The Greek NT is incorrect because “Christ” is a title and should have the definite article every time. The Aramaic New Testament text always says: “Jesus the Anointed.” Messiah and Christ both mean “Anointed.” I can see how “Jesus the Messiah” got translated as “Jesus Christ” because technically the word “the” is not in the Aramaic text. Since the word “Anointed” is a title, it should be rendered “the Anointed” every time. There are many Biblical references that I could cite that the word m’shi-kha should be translated as “the Messiah,” but here is one: “Why? Is [the] Christ divided? Or was Paul crucified for you? Or were you baptized in the name of Paul?” (1 Cor. 1:13 Lamsa). I added the word “the” in Lamsa’s translation to prove my point.

“..And when Jesus beheld him, he said, Thou art Simon the son of Jona: thou shalt be called Cephas, which is by interpretation, A stone.” (John 1:42 KJV). Read this verse again and again until you get it. The Greek NT is saying it is a translation of the Aramaic original. The Aramaic NT doesn’t have the last part of: which is by interpretation, A stone.

“And at the ninth hour, Jesus cried out with a loud voice, saying Eli, Eli, lemana, shabakthani! which means, My God, my God, for this I was spared!” (Mark 15:34 Lamsa). Mark translates Jesus’ words that he cried out from the cross from the Palestinian Aramaic into the Chaldean, or southern Aramaic. The word El (God) is not the normal word for God in the Peshitta Bible. El occurs in a minority of times in the Aramaic Old Testament and could be construed as a name for God by a Aramaic speaker (see Gen. 33:20). For the translation, Mark uses the word a-la-ha (God).

The NT writers never quote the Greek OT. The problem is that the Greek Old Testament (translated in the third century before the Christian Era) was updated to match the way the verses read in the New Testament. I will give examples of this. Romans 3:10-18 says this: “As it is written, There is none righteous, no, not one; There is none who understands, there is none who seeks after God. They are all gone astray and they have been rejected; there is none who does good, no, not one. (Ps. 14:1-3; 53:1-3) Their throats are like open sepulchers; (Ps. 5:9; 140:3) their tongues are deceitful; the venom of asps is under their lips. Their mouths are full of cursing and bitterness. (Ps. 10:7) They are overquick to shed blood. Destruction and misery are in their ways. They have not known the path of peace. (Isa. 59:7-8) There is no fear of God before their eyes.” (Ps. 36:1). The verses Paul quotes are not controversial and are still in the Hebrew Bible at their respective place. The editor of the Greek OT adds these six extra sentences to Psalm 14: 1-3; he thought the Jews changed and deleted these extra verses in the Hebrew Bible. Also, it is important to know how the NT writers quoted scripture. The NT writers didn’t always quote every word in a particular verse, just the words in the verse to get their message across. Sometimes they changed the order of the sentences in the verse. Sometimes they corrected the Aramaic OT translation for what the original Hebrew said. And lastly, sometimes they substituted a synonym for a word or phrase in a verse for better clarification. In Chapter 3 of Romans, Paul substituted the word “righteous” for the words “that does good,” at the beginning of his quoting. In the Aramaic language, a lyer, stealer and murderer can still be called a “good” shepherd if he knew how to care and feed sheep. The word “good” refers to being good at something as well as righteous. Paul wanted to clarify what “doing good” meant at Psalm 14. It is no doubt that the words “does good” is used in Psalm 14. The Hebrew OT, Dead Sea Scrolls and the Aramaic OT all say those words. However, the Greek OT has the word “righteous” in that verse and says exactly word for word what Paul said in Romans 3:10-18 in the Greek NT. It should be noted that not every Greek NT quotation matches exactly what the Greek OT says. Just some OT verses were made to be copies of a Greek NT citation.

Another example of the updating of a OT verse in the Greek Translation to match the Greek NT verse occurs at Hebrews 10:5, which says: “Sacrifices and offerings Thou didst not desire, but a body Thou hast prepared me.” The word “but” is used as a contrast in the Aramaic language. The Dead Sea Scrolls confirms the Hebrew reading after offerings as: mine ears hast Thou opened (Ps. 40:6 KJV). The Aramaic OT says the same thing as the Hebrew; of which Dr. Lamsa translated not literally as: I now have understanding;” (Lamsa). The Greek OT goes contrary to the three witnesses I just mentioned, and the verse at Psalm 40 reads the same as the NT quotation; with the words: “…but a body Thou hast prepared me.” Paul is only quoting the first part of Psalm 40; then he contrasts the idea of God not wanting sacrifices and offerings with Him sending the body of a human to do His will and be His human sacrifice. This is in accordance with the next verse (v.7), which states: “Then said I, Lo, I come; in the beginning of the books, it is written of me.”