5. “Do you not know that the wicked shall not inherit the kingdom
of God? Be not misled; neither the immoral (Prostitutes) nor idolaters nor adulterers nor the corrupt,
nor [men] who lie with males...” (1 Corinthians 6:9 Lamsa). Dr. Lamsa translated
the Aramaic word m'khab-le (plural) as "the corrupt" here. This is an acceptable interpretation since this is the meaning of m’khab-le when the Aramaic text describes Israel as “corrupt children”
(Isaiah 1:4). M’khab-la (singular) also means
“corrupt” at Titus 2:8, which says: “who is modest (chaste, self-controlled) and not corrupt; and no one shall be despising it (i.e. your
teaching, speech), that he who stands against us shall be ashamed when he will not be able to speak against us [any]
M'khab-le literally means "corrupted ones" or “those being corrupted,”
and hence “the corrupt (plural).” Mkhab-le acts as a noun here as many
Aramaic participles do. It is the plural active Pael participle for the word khwa-l; which means: “to destroy, corrupt, writhe, etc.” The Aramaic
letter beth, has a "b" and a "w" sound.
The Aramaic word khwa-l is the same as the Hebrew word
kha-val (Or Strong’s pronunciation: kha-bal,
#2256). Kha-bal has the same meanings of khwa-l that
I have seen in the Aramaic Bible.
refers to those corrupted by heresy or have wrong opinions. The statement m'khab-bal ri-ya-neh
"his mind is corrupted" refers to "one of corrupt opinions, i.e. a heretic." M'khab-le
also refers to "the morally corrupt" or "the debauched, depraved." This would be the closest in meaning
to how it was translated into Greek as malakoi "the morally weak, those lacking in
self control, unrestrained, voluptuous, etc." And lastly, m'khab-le refers to the
"crazy ones." Aramaic has the statement ai-len ith-khab-bal pur-sha-nay-hon "those whose divisions were corrupted" and refers
to "those who have lost their reason." This
last meaning was given to me by a native Aramaic speaker but I'm not convinced Paul had this meaning in mind when he wrote
There is no evidence that
mkhab-le means “effeminates” or “homosexuals” anywhere in the
Note: At Isaiah 1:4, the Aramaic text literally
describes Israel as “children being corrupted,” which Dr. Lamsa translates as “children that are corrupt.”
For Titus 2:8, believers are to be modest “ and not being corrupted;” is what the Aramaic literally says.
The Aramaic pronunciation of shach-bay am dich-re is translated as [men] who lie with
males (Lamsa). Dr. Lamsa adds the word men in our English
translation. The Aramaic text as voweled (pointed) says: “those who commit rape with men,” or simply
“those who rape men.” The Aramaic language mostly contains the word “with”
(am) in most of the places that English speakers use the word; but there are a few places
where the Aramaic language uses the word “with” where English speakers would not use it in a phrase.
The last word may be singular though; since there isn’t any extra grammar indicating that
the word is plural. This interpretation will be discussed further down.
The key word to focus on is the Aramaic
word shcaw “to rape.” Shcaw changes from
the meaning of "to lie down [with]" to "to rape" in at least context. I also suspect that constructing
this word into a verbal noun and coupling it with the word dich-ra "man" or
dich-re "men," gives it also the meaning of "rape."
appears in the Ethpaal form as ish-tac-caw (the c
is doubled) in the Aramaic Targums of Isaiah 13:16 and Zechariah 14:2. So even though ish-tac-caw
literally means "to be lain with;" that meaning changes into "to be raped" in those contexts. Isaiah
13:16 says " their infants will be ripped up before their eyes,
their households will be plundered, and their women will be raped." Zechariah 14:2
says "...and the women will be raped, and half of the city will go into exile..." Shcaw is also used in the phrase: “And one of them came seeking to rape the wife of
that man” (A Dictionary of Jewish Palestinian Aramaic, first edition by Michael Sokoloff). Lastly, The only place
this word appears in the sexual usage in the Bible is at Genesis 35:22. The context is referring to rape at that verse
The Hebrew word sha-cav was translated two ways in the Aramaic
Old Testament. Approximately ninety-nine percent of the time, sha-cav was translated as
dmik; which means “to lie down, sleep.” Dmik
can also mean “to lie with” when the word “with” is added after it. When sha-cav
was translated as schaw in the Aramaic for a sexual act, the context is referring to rape
(see Gen. 35:22).
This Aramaic phrase used here at 1 Corinthians 6:9 may have the interpretation of: “those
who commit rape with a man” or simply “those who rape a man.” Generally, there needs to be
a plural pronoun to let the reader know if the second noun is plural, though not always. A plural pronoun isn’t needed
if the second noun’s plural spelling is different than its singular spelling. Or if the second noun is performing an
action and the verb is written plural.
Most Aramaic nouns are spelled the same in their plural and singular form. Plural or singular pronouns
attached to the verb will let the reader know if the noun is plural or singular. When the word “of” is used between
a [verbal] noun and another noun, the absence of the pronoun them means the second noun is singular. If the pronoun
them (usually attached to the first noun) appears before the second noun, then that second noun is plural.
In the above example, the Aramaic literally says:
“rapers of with a man (dich-ra).” The verbal noun (rapers) is
in the plural construct form, so it is clearly plural. Since there is no plural pronoun afterwards to indicate that the second
noun is plural, then it may not be.
The following are a few examples of the regular
or normal way to express a statement which has two plural nouns connected with the word “of.” “…the
souls of the disciples…” (Acts 14:22) is literally in the Aramaic: “the souls of them -
of the disciples…” “…the words of the prophets…” (Acts 15:15)
is literally in the Aramaic: “…the words of them – of the prophets…” A third
example is at Acts 15:10: “the necks of the disciples…” The Greek translator
translated the word “necks” in the singular though, as “neck.” The meaning of both the Aramaic and
Greek text here is the same. The Aramaic text isn’t saying that the disciples have more than one neck. Neck
is plural here because there is more than one person spoken of in the phrase.
Here are some examples of the same construction used in 1 Corinthians 6:9. In some of the examples
I left the word “of” out. Revelation 17:8 says: “inhabitants (pl.) upon the
earth (sing.).” Revelation 18:17 says: “all the passengers (pl.) in
the ship (sing.).” Revelation 19:5 says: “worshippers (pl.) of His Name
(sing.).” Additionally, there are some examples with this verbal noun form in which the second noun sounds
like it should be plural to an English speaker, but it is not. We know this because at Revelation 22:15, the Greek
text has the second noun in the singular form as in: “makers (pl.) of a lie (sing.).”
And at Job 13:4, the phrase says: “speakers (pl.) of a lie (sing.).” We know
that the word “lie” is singular because the original Hebrew text has the word “lie” in the singular
Additionally, there are some occurrences
where nouns are pointed plural in the Aramaic New Testament when they should be pointed singular. I know they are singular
because there is nothing in the text suggesting that the noun is plural. Additionally, the Greek New Testament translated
those words singular. These errors occur frequently in the Aramaic Old Testament Translation and in Dr. Lamsa’s Translation.
The Aramaic Old Testament is very often a literal translation of the Hebrew and doesn’t always have the additional grammar
needed to let the reader know if the noun is singular or plural. Dr. Lamsa many times translated a noun plural when the Hebrew
noun is singular and vice versa. Since the Aramaic Old Testament is a translation of the Hebrew, then the Aramaic noun is
singular when the Hebrew noun is singular and plural when the Hebrew noun is plural (in most cases). I haven’t come
across this problem of not knowing
if a noun is singular or plural in the Aramaic New Testament; which was originally written in Aramaic and is very precise.
Though I do have to say that I may not agree with how a noun is pointed (voweled) and translated as in this example at First
We know from the Bible that there
is such a thing as gang rape where men attempted or succeeded in lying with another person. The Bible gives examples of this
in the story of Sodom and of the men of Gibeah.