IS THE BIBLE AGAINST HOMOSEXUALITY?
A scholarly response on what the Hebrew and Aramaic Bible says concerning LGBTI people.
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Greek LGBT Terms
GREEK ACKNOWLEDGEMENT OF LGBT PEOPLE
The Greek Language does have words that I believe include LGBT people; which I will mention below. Moreover, I give some Biblical and Extra Biblical references of those words below, not to show that the particular “male, female, son, etc.” is actually LGBTI, but that the Greek Language has these words and expressions, and that fact suggests that it knew of LGBTI people. Thus Greek persons were accepting to some extent.
The Greek Language often uses the word tou [του] to represent: “the son of,” however, it literally means: “the one of.” That “the” form is both the Genitive Masculine Singular (GMS) form and the Genitive Neuter Singular (GNS) form. So I think one reason of its usage is because the Greeks understood that some of the “sons” were “trans-sons” and/or possibly “adopted sons, grandsons, etc.” Compare: (1 Macc. 5:56; 7:1; etc.). It’s a good word to use if one doesn’t know what type of “son” a person is. Nevertheless, some of them were biological or genetic sons also. (Lucas 3:28-38 GrkNT) literally says: “… Pereẓ, the one of Yehudah, the one of Jacoḅ (Yaaqoḅ), the one of Iṣaac, the one of Aḅraham, …” The Aramaic Source Text actually has the word bar [ܒܲܪ]: “the son of” every time. Moreover, the Greek Language does have a (better-) way to say: “the son (grandson, adopted son) of” – which is to use the Greek word hwiou [‘υιου] – which the Greek Bible does also sometimes use (Gen. 24:47; 25:12, 19; Matt. 1:1; 23:35; etc.). It also uses the Genitive Masculine Plural (GMP) word hwion [‘υιων] versus just the Genitive Neuter Plural (GNP) word form: ton [των] – “the ones of” - to say: “the sons (grandsons, adopted sons) of [so & so]” (Gen. 10:1, 21; 23:10; 25:13; etc.). Other forms of the word hwios [‘υιος] “son” - are also used – see (Ezek. 48:11; 1 Macc. 8:17; etc.).
The Greek Language often uses the word tou [του] to represent: “the son of,” however, it literally means: “the one of.” That “the” form is both the Genitive Masculine Singular (GMS) form and the Genitive Neuter Singular (GNS) form. So I think one reason of its usage is because the Greeks understood that some of the “sons” were “trans-sons” and/or possibly “adopted sons, grandsons, etc.” Compare: (1 Macc. 5:56; 7:1; etc.). It’s a good word to use if one doesn’t know what type of “son” a person is. Nevertheless, some of them were biological or genetic sons also. (Lucas 3:28-38 GrkNT) literally says: “… Pereẓ, the one of Yehudah, the one of Jacoḅ (Yaaqoḅ), the one of Iṣaac, the one of Aḅraham, …” The Aramaic Source Text actually has the word bar [ܒܲܪ]: “the son of” every time. Moreover, the Greek Language does have a (better-) way to say: “the son (grandson, adopted son) of” – which is to use the Greek word hwiou [‘υιου] – which the Greek Bible does also sometimes use (Gen. 24:47; 25:12, 19; Matt. 1:1; 23:35; etc.). It also uses the Genitive Masculine Plural (GMP) word hwion [‘υιων] versus just the Genitive Neuter Plural (GNP) word form: ton [των] – “the ones of” - to say: “the sons (grandsons, adopted sons) of [so & so]” (Gen. 10:1, 21; 23:10; 25:13; etc.). Other forms of the word hwios [‘υιος] “son” - are also used – see (Ezek. 48:11; 1 Macc. 8:17; etc.).
The Greek Language has the adjective/adjective-noun arsenikos [αρσενικος] – “male-like (masculine)” (Ezek. 16:17) or “male.” It was made from the Greek noun arsen [αρσεν] – “male.” I think the reason that there are two related words meaning “male” is because the Greeks knew of “trans-men” who were “male-like (male)” (Ex. 23:17; 1 Macc. 5:29, 31, 51; etc.). Arsenikos “a male-like one” is sometimes the translation of zacar [זָכָר] – “male.” However, it is always the translation of the Hebrew word: zacur [זָכוּר] – “a male [as remembered or noteworthy].” Look at how the Greek Translation of (Num. 31:17) brings out the Hebrew Text with its translation of zacar “male” as: arsenikos “male-like one” one time. --- “And now kill ye every male-like one (arsenikos: male) among the little ones [ha-taph] and kill ye every female (woman) [who was] knowing (sleeping with) a man [ish] on the bed of a man (arsen: husband).” It’s like the Greek Text is saying to kill every “trans-man” or “male” plus any female who slept with a man (husband) – i.e. who committed fornication or adultery. The Hebrew Text just has “male (man) [zacar]” both times. ----
Note: The Hebrew word taph supposedly generally only Biblically means: “little ones” or “baggage (luggage).” However, I think that there are some meanings left out, and that it doesn’t always mean “children (kids)” when referring to persons; but (sometimes-) actually refers to adults. Hebrew indication of that at the above verse is that while the word ish-shah can sometimes mean: “female” (Gen. 7:2), it mostly means: “a woman (wife).” Hebrew has specific other words that mean: “girl, young woman, daughter, etc.” Furthermore, the Aramaic and Greek Translations of the Hebrew word taph disagree on when it means: “burden (baggage, belonging[s], household stuff),” “family” and “little ones.” The Syriac Old Testament Translation has the word: i-qar-ta [ܝ̣ܩܲܪܬܳܐ]; which can mean: “belonging)s( [as heavy, valuable or costly]” or “a dear one (precious or beloved one)” hence: “a child, etc.” or “an honored one.” Every Biblical occurrence of the word zacur “male,” which is translated as arsenikos, can refer to “a male” and/or “trans-male” every time. (Ex. 23:17; 34:23; Deut. 16:16; 20:13). Trans-men were among every “male” which would appear before the Lord YHWH three times in the year for the festivals (feasts). They were also among the fighting “males.”
The form gunaika [γυναικα] [AFS] “woman” was probably actually [originally] the accusative of the hypothetical word: gunaike [γυναικη] [NFS] (?) - which both would literally mean: “feminine one (female[-like], woman).” That’s what it looks like. -Ai-ke (-ai-e) [f.] or -ai-kos (-ai-os) [m.] plus -i-ke (-i-kos) [f. / m.] and -i-e (-i-os) [f. / m.] are established “person-endings.” So an obvious making of another word from gune [γυνη] “woman” [NFS] would be those above nominative, accusative, etc. forms. This noun also follows third declension noun endings, which -aik [-αικ] isn’t part of those noun endings; just what comes after it. The ancient Doric (Dorian) Greek Dialect has the pronunciation: guna [γυνα] [NFS] meaning: “woman.” That word follows the way one would expect for a feminine word – i.e. gunas [γυνας] [GFS], guna [γυνα] [DFS], gunan [γυναν] [AFS], gunai [γυναι] [NFP], etc. So even though the Koine Greek chose the nominative singular and plural forms of “woman (women),” then chose the different adjective-noun forms for its other forms, there is still no way a Greek person wouldn’t know what happened, or what the other forms really mean. Nevertheless, I already believed that the word: “woman” also referred to: “a trans-woman,” but this is just more icing on the cake.
It’s possible that the Greek Translation of (Lev. 18:22; 20:13) also has the same or similar meaning of what I believe the Original Hebrew and Aramaic OT Translation says. The original Greek LXX was ONLY of the Law. So we shouldn’t assume it would agree with the forged anti-gay (LGBT) verses found in later Greek Old Testament Books. The Greek Language adopted the Hebrew and/or Aramaic Alphabet. Alpha = Aleph, Beta = Beṭ, Gamma = Gimel, etc. The Greek Language also adopted the same way of saying things. Meaning, the Greek Language has certain verbs &/or nouns that can be said with or without the small word: “in (on, with).” Because Greece and Israel are in the same setting area, the same statements with certain verbs and nouns could be alternately said - plus or minus a small word – where either statement has the same meaning. Usually we see these statements alternately said within the Hebrew, Aramaic or Greek Bible. However, there is no example in the Greek Bible showing that the statement: “on the bed of” can be said without the word: “on,” except maybe at the Leviticus verses. However, maybe the Greek Translator wanted to leave the word “on” out of the “Translation” because the original Hebrew Text doesn’t have the word “on” there. It could be a more accurate “Translation” if Greek could also say that statement without the word: “on.” Otherwise, maybe it was left out due to prejudice, and hence to leave a possible antigay verse, plus its’ parallel verse, in the Biblical Text. People speaking Greek could still possibly come to the non-prejudicial interpretation of the verse. It is hard to believe that Greek wouldn’t be able to say “on the bed of” without the small word “on” there. Greek can say the same statements without small words like Hebrew – I.e. “in the morning, in the evening, in the night, shall meditate on fear, by/with the sword, dwell in/on, in the way, fight with, etc. See GrkOT: (Isa. 33:18; 37:7; Jer. 2:23; 21:12; 1 Macc. 8:32; etc.)
Thus the following is the possible Greek Translation (Meaning) of the Leviticus verses. “You shall not lie with a man on the bed (bedding) of a woman (wife), for it is an abhorrence.” (Lev. 18:22 LXX). “And whoever shall lie with a male on the bed (bedding) of a woman (wife), both of them have committed an abhorrence. Let them surely be put to death, they are guilty (deserving, liable).” (Lev. 20:13 LXX). Further proof that the above translations are possible interpretations is that a later Greek editor attempted to edit the above LXX text, which would be different than the original Hebrew text. There is a Greek variant, or two readings, for the (Lev. 18:22) verse. Rahlfs-Hanhart’s Septuaginta has the word gunaikos [γυναικος] “of a woman (wife)” there versus the Greek word gunaikeian [γυναικειαν] “feminine.”
Is the Bible Against Homosexuality? by Preacher Mattai © (Ɔ) 2016. All rights reserved.
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