IS THE BIBLE AGAINST HOMOSEXUALITY?
A scholarly response on what the Hebrew and Aramaic Bible says concerning LGBTI people.
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Deuteronomy 23:17-18
16. “There shall be no whore (qede-shah – female prostitute) of the daughters of Israel, nor a sodomite (qa-desh – male prostitute) of the sons of Israel, Thou shalt not bring the hire of a whore, or the price of a dog, into the house of the LORD thy God for any vow: for even both these are abomination unto the LORD thy God.” (Deuteronomy 23:17-18 KJV). A Qa-desh “male prostitute” comes from the Hebrew word qa-dash, which means: “to set apart, make holy.” The word qa-dosh, which means “holy, set apart,” is also from qa-dash. Qa-desh “male prostitute” is generic in meaning and could refer to either a heterosexual or gay male prostitute. The Aramaic translation translated the Hebrew noun “male prostitute” also generically but as a verb. The Aramaic text says: “…and neither shall there be a man who prostitutes of the sons of Israel.” Dr. Lamsa however retained and polished up the KJV translation at these verses in his translation when the Aramaic says something different. The Aramaic text tells us that the sons of Israel are not to commit prostitution. Additionally, the KJV translators chose to use the word “sodomite” for their interpretation of the Hebrew word qa-desh “male prostitute.” The word sodomite doesn’t mean a prostitute in English; so their translation is deceptive or misleading at the very least. The word dog (ce-lev [m.]) in this context refers to a male prostitute. However, it's also used to refer to a woman without shame [i.e. a harlot (female prostitute) or adulterous woman]. She is said to be like a dog (Sira 26:24 [25]). The masculine singular gender for "dog" can refer to both genders; especially in a statement such as: "like a dog." It's also probable that the feminine form cal-bah (female dog), would have also meant a "female prostitute."
The word dog is also used as a word of contempt and abasement in many places in the Bible (See 1 Sa. 17:43, 24:14; 2 Sa. 9:8; etc). Since paganism and its male prostitutes were abhorred, the word dog (m.) became to mean a “male prostitute.” Some religionists have tried to find some connection with the word “dog” and homosexuality. However, the NAS Old Testament Hebrew Lexicon defines “dog” as: dog (literal); contempt or abasement (fig.); of pagan sacrifice or male cult prostitute (fig.). James Strong defines the word dog to mean: (by euphemism) a male prostitute. Notice that both those witnesses don’t say that the word dog means a “[homosexual] male prostitute.” The word homosexual is not to be included with the words “male prostitute” for their definition of ce-lev (or male prostitute). And lastly, the New Jerusalem Bible has a footnote for this verse. That Bible translation states that the word dog is “a contemptuous term for [a] male prostitute.” Religious prostitution was probably based on the person's sexual orientation [i.e. hetero, bi or gay] (See Ex. 34:16, etc.). The word za-nu, meaning "they prostituted," is translated as "whoring" (KJV) at Exodus 34:16. Some prostitutes may have gone against their sexual orientation (or identity) and had sex with others as part of a religious service, ritual or fee. In conclusion, there is no reason to believe that a “dog” meant exclusively a “homosexual male prostitute.”
When the word sodomite is used as a translation from the Hebrew text, it needs to be understood as a male prostitute and a pagan minister. Interestingly, the word Sodom originally didn't carry any meaning dealing with homosexuality or anal sex. Our understanding of sodomy (sodomia) as anal sex is a Latin and English definition which comes from the story of Sodom. The meaning of the city Sedom (Sodom) is in dispute. I think it could be from the Hebrew word sid-dim (pl.) "slime [-pits], lime." Sedom would be just a slight alteration of that word. Support for that connection is that a city often had a mountain, valley, field and/or desert (wilderness). Those land features could simply be called for this city as: "mountain of Sedom, valley of Sedom, etc. Also, there is such a mountain called Mt. Sedom where Sodom is believed to be near. So, Sedom is likely a slight corruption of the word sid-dim [the one "d" is doubled or pronounced twice for this plural word]. That's why we also see the expression: "Valley of Siddim" in the Bible (Gen. 14:3, 8, 10); for the valley adjacent to Sedom.
The New Strong's Expanded Exhaustive Concordance of the Bible James Strong LL. D, S.T.D.6945. [6x] , kaw-dashe’; from 6942; a (quasi) sacred person, i.e. (tech.) a (male)devotee (by prostitution) to licentious idolatry:- sodomite [5x], unclean [1x]. Ancient Hebrew Lexicon of the Bible by Jeff A. BennerQede-sha – A female prostitute set aside for a special purpose.Qa-desh – A male prostitute set aside for a special purpose.Qa-dash – To set someone or something apart for a special purpose.
Note: A qede-sha (f.) and qa-desh (m.) literally mean "a holy one" or "a person set apart for a special purpose;" and hence "a prostitute." Both words in their proper gender appear in the Samaritan Targum as qad-di-shah (f. - "a holy female, prostitute) and qad-dish (m. - "a holy man, prostitute"). This is old Aramaic. Other Purported Meanings for Sodom (i.e. Sedom):
James Strong lists Sedom's meaning as: to scorch; burnt (i.e. volcanic or bituminous) district [Strong’s Exh. Conc. of the Bible]. If so, then that would make Sedom the infinitive pronunciation of the hypothetical word sa-dam "it scorched (burnt)." Sed-om would then mean: "to scorch" in my opinion. The first problem I see is that sa-dam may not have been a legitimate Hebrew word in the past and now. That verb root doesn't appear at all in the Hebrew Bible in any conjugation, command form, infinitive form, participle form, etc. So I'm not convinced that sa-dam existed in Hebrew as a verb during the Bible's development or even after. My Webster's Hebrew Dictionary doesn't list the verb sa-dam as being in Modern Hebrew vocabulary. James Strong appears to be wrong; as he is in other instances in his connection of verb roots and word meanings. Finally, that verb root also doesn't appear in the Aramaic. That's significant since Hebrew and Aramaic are sister languages and were copying each other. The second problem I have with the meaning that James Strong gives for Sedom is that it doesn't match the meaning of the Arabic verb sa-dam. Sa-dam means "it was dry (a spring)." So I would think that a hypothetical Hebrew word sa-dam would carry that same meaning. Thus the meaning James Strong gives for Sedom is questionable and hence may not be correct. Why doesn't it appear at (Jub. 36:11), which says: ".. as He [God] burned (sa-raph) Sedom .."?
Note: It should be mentioned that Arabic isn't as closely aligned with Hebrew as Hebrew and Aramaic are. As a Shemitic language, it shares a lot of the same meanings for the same verb roots and their nouns; but it also has additional meanings for the same Shemitic words along with additional words in its vocabulary.
Some people think that Sedom means: "Their Assembly" or "Their Counsel." That would make the city Sedom a corruption of the word: so-dam.
Is the Bible Against Homosexuality? by Preacher Mattai © 2016. All rights reserved.
When the word sodomite is used as a translation from the Hebrew text, it needs to be understood as a male prostitute and a pagan minister. Interestingly, the word Sodom originally didn't carry any meaning dealing with homosexuality or anal sex. Our understanding of sodomy (sodomia) as anal sex is a Latin and English definition which comes from the story of Sodom. The meaning of the city Sedom (Sodom) is in dispute. I think it could be from the Hebrew word sid-dim (pl.) "slime [-pits], lime." Sedom would be just a slight alteration of that word. Support for that connection is that a city often had a mountain, valley, field and/or desert (wilderness). Those land features could simply be called for this city as: "mountain of Sedom, valley of Sedom, etc. Also, there is such a mountain called Mt. Sedom where Sodom is believed to be near. So, Sedom is likely a slight corruption of the word sid-dim [the one "d" is doubled or pronounced twice for this plural word]. That's why we also see the expression: "Valley of Siddim" in the Bible (Gen. 14:3, 8, 10); for the valley adjacent to Sedom.
The New Strong's Expanded Exhaustive Concordance of the Bible James Strong LL. D, S.T.D.6945. [6x] , kaw-dashe’; from 6942; a (quasi) sacred person, i.e. (tech.) a (male)devotee (by prostitution) to licentious idolatry:- sodomite [5x], unclean [1x]. Ancient Hebrew Lexicon of the Bible by Jeff A. BennerQede-sha – A female prostitute set aside for a special purpose.Qa-desh – A male prostitute set aside for a special purpose.Qa-dash – To set someone or something apart for a special purpose.
Note: A qede-sha (f.) and qa-desh (m.) literally mean "a holy one" or "a person set apart for a special purpose;" and hence "a prostitute." Both words in their proper gender appear in the Samaritan Targum as qad-di-shah (f. - "a holy female, prostitute) and qad-dish (m. - "a holy man, prostitute"). This is old Aramaic. Other Purported Meanings for Sodom (i.e. Sedom):
James Strong lists Sedom's meaning as: to scorch; burnt (i.e. volcanic or bituminous) district [Strong’s Exh. Conc. of the Bible]. If so, then that would make Sedom the infinitive pronunciation of the hypothetical word sa-dam "it scorched (burnt)." Sed-om would then mean: "to scorch" in my opinion. The first problem I see is that sa-dam may not have been a legitimate Hebrew word in the past and now. That verb root doesn't appear at all in the Hebrew Bible in any conjugation, command form, infinitive form, participle form, etc. So I'm not convinced that sa-dam existed in Hebrew as a verb during the Bible's development or even after. My Webster's Hebrew Dictionary doesn't list the verb sa-dam as being in Modern Hebrew vocabulary. James Strong appears to be wrong; as he is in other instances in his connection of verb roots and word meanings. Finally, that verb root also doesn't appear in the Aramaic. That's significant since Hebrew and Aramaic are sister languages and were copying each other. The second problem I have with the meaning that James Strong gives for Sedom is that it doesn't match the meaning of the Arabic verb sa-dam. Sa-dam means "it was dry (a spring)." So I would think that a hypothetical Hebrew word sa-dam would carry that same meaning. Thus the meaning James Strong gives for Sedom is questionable and hence may not be correct. Why doesn't it appear at (Jub. 36:11), which says: ".. as He [God] burned (sa-raph) Sedom .."?
Note: It should be mentioned that Arabic isn't as closely aligned with Hebrew as Hebrew and Aramaic are. As a Shemitic language, it shares a lot of the same meanings for the same verb roots and their nouns; but it also has additional meanings for the same Shemitic words along with additional words in its vocabulary.
Some people think that Sedom means: "Their Assembly" or "Their Counsel." That would make the city Sedom a corruption of the word: so-dam.
Is the Bible Against Homosexuality? by Preacher Mattai © 2016. All rights reserved.
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